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Tax question

Started by babyfat, Dec 22, 2007, 10:33:37 AM

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mistoffolees

Go to the IRS FAQ page you cited. Now, open Form 8332. It states that the divorce decree is sufficient to define who gets the deduction without filing Form 8332 as long as 3 conditions are met.

So, as long as those 3 conditions are met, the court order is essentially the same (from the IRS POV) as if the spouse who does NOT get the deduction signed a Form 8332.

That seems to work most of the time in practice, as well. Provide the documentation they ask for on Form 8332 and you should be OK.